After reading the news item here at celiac.com about irritable bowel syndrome possibly being triggered by IgG antibodies to food, I started wondering whether maybe the degree of intestinal involvement in celiac disease might correlate directly with anti-gliadin IgG levels. Do those of you who have been tested for celiac disease find this idea plausible, or does it not appear to be true in your case? I'm just curious.
Intensity Of Intestinal Distress
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