Hi, I'm looking for advice on what may be the proper interpretation of my test results and symptoms. Three antibody tests were performed on me: Antigliadin IgG was high at 25 units, whereas IgA for antigliadin and tissue transglutaminase were normal at 5 units. From the information I've browsed, it appears as though one interpretation is that in conjunction with the normal IgA tests, the high IgG test isn't diagnostic of proper celiac sprue, though it may instead be indicative other, non-celiac metabolic/immunological abnormalities I may have. On the other hand, I've come across information indicating that in some cases, celiac disease actually results in IgA deficiencies, in which case results like mine are exactly what would be expected. Are these both viable interpretations? Does one sound better than the other?
Additional information about my case: I don't have major, overt gastrointestinal symptoms, though probably an above average amount of GI distress. I have intermittent aching in my arms and legs, fatigue, and "brain fog" symptoms, which appear to result from multiple food/chemical sensitivities. Past experimental attempts I've made at gluten exclusion seem to have resulted in a decrease of abdominal cramping I otherwise have and a change in the character of my bowel movements, though not an overwhelming change in the more bothersome symptoms. Over the past year, I've been dabbling with an unconventional doctor who, with his tests, has found both malabsorption and leaky gut, as well as "detoxification abnormalities." So, one thought I have is that an inherent gluten intolerance may be behind all those symptoms and "alternative" test results, whereas on the other hand, I wonder if I may have other, non-celiac problems causing these symptoms, including perhaps some reactivity to gluten and elevated anti-gliadin IgG, but not proper celiac sprue.
I'll be grateful for any and all thoughts, thanks very much.
PaulWMember Since 03 Aug 2004
Offline Last Active Mar 01 2005 08:17 AM
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