I have never heard this before. That does not make sense to me because why wouldn't it be Celiac then?--since Celiac is specifically diagnosed by the Marsh scale.
Please tell us here you heard this? It is usually accepted that villi damage is because of Celiac or a few other things but NCGI isn't one of them.
Here's some quick references from my friend Google:
"Many physicians will not diagnose celiac disease unless intestinal damage reaches Marsh III orMarsh IV levels."
"GS were considered those patients with negative autoantibody serology (endomysium antibodies-immunoglobulin A (EMA-IgA) and tTG-IgA), normal mucosa (Marsh stage 0) or increased intraepithelial lymphocytes (Marsh stage 1) and improvement of symptoms within days of the implementation of the diet:
"The hallmark of celiac disease is Marsh 3 or villous atrophy"
Non-celiac gluten sensitivity has been clinically recognized as less severe than celiac disease....Some individuals may experience minimal intestinal damage, and this goes away with a gluten-free diet.
"According to the European Society for Pediatric Gastroenterology, Hepatology and Nutrition (ESPGHAN) current criteria, duodenal villous atrophy (Marsh stage III and onwards) is the necessary criteria for diagnosing celiac disease and recommending a gluten-free diet....Despite these observations, caution is still necessary before diagnosing celiac disease in patients with Marsh I lesions. Intraepithelial lymphocytic infiltration can be a common, nonspecific inflammatory response of the epithelium to a number of noxious or inflammatory signals."