About one year ago, we had our son's stool tested for gluten and casein sensitivities. His results showed he was within normal range for casein, but results for the gluten sensitivity showed "Intestinal antigliadin IgA antibody was elevated, indicating that you have active dietary gluten sensitivity. For optimal health, resolution of symptoms (if you have them), and prevention of small intestinal damage and malnutrition, osteoporosis, and damage to other tissues (like nerves, brain, joints, muscles, thyroid, pancreas, other glands, skin, liver, spleen, among others), it is recommended that you follow a strict and permanent gluten free diet. As gluten sensitivity is a genetic syndrome, you may want to have your relatives screened as well."
We painstakingly removed gluten from his diet for 11 months and have seen no change in his stool. Recently, we had my son tested for the celiac gene and he was found to not have any gene for this disease. Our doctor said it was okay to begin letting him have wheat again. Does anyone have any insight on explaining this apparent discrepancy? If gluten sensitivity is a genetic syndrome and our son does not have the gene for it, is it correct in saying that he has no gluten intollerance and can resume eating wheat when it is unavoidable?
yamsMember Since 11 Oct 2010
Offline Last Active Oct 21 2010 04:02 AM
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