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Hi, my son came back with all the antigliadins to be positive, including the TTG and IGG and IGA. (i hope i am saying this correctly, i dont understand it all). He had been gluten free for a year prior to this test and has several other allergies and major food sensitivities. We know he does NOT have celiacs because he did the genetic testing and does not have the cell or DNA or whatever it is that you would have to have. Ironically, i got tested and had the exact same numeric results as him.

Does anyone understand what that means? He doesnt have celiacs but his bloodword is that of someone with celiacs...i am keeping him off gluten because it puts him in excrutiating pain but i want to understand the difference if anyone can help.

Thank you in advance!

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Could you post your genetic test results?

It's hard to understand his blood work was so positive after being gluten-free for a year. I can see why you're asking.

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