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salexander421

Question About Genetics

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We first had my daughter gene tested since she was already on a gluten free diet at the time and found out she was positive for DQ8. I just recently got my gene test through enterolab and found out I have two copies of DQ8. This means that I got it from both of my parents and that both of my girls should have at least one copy of the gene. My question is, since my daughter only has one copy of the gene and obviously got it from me is it safe to say that my husband doesn't have the gene?

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simply put....no...he has two genes, the one he didnt give to DD may be celiac related

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simply put....no...he has two genes, the one he didnt give to DD may be celiac related

I'm sorry, I guess I don't quite understand your answer. What do you mean he has two genes?

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I'm sorry, I guess I don't quite understand your answer. What do you mean he has two genes?

my guess is that we dont have to have 2 genes related to celiac/gluten intolerance- from other people's results ive seen on here. so, he may have NO gluten related genes OR he might have (for example: a DQ8 & a DQ1)... then your daughter would have gotten her 1 DQ8 from u, and a DQ1 from the dad. did that make sense?

or lets say he only had 1 DQ gene, and it was a DQ7. then either your daughter would have her 1 DQ8 from u, and either a DQ7 or nothing from the dad.

at least that's my amateur understanding.

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my guess is that we dont have to have 2 genes related to celiac/gluten intolerance- from other people's results ive seen on here. so, he may have NO gluten related genes OR he might have (for example: a DQ8 & a DQ1)... then your daughter would have gotten her 1 DQ8 from u, and a DQ1 from the dad. did that make sense?

or lets say he only had 1 DQ gene, and it was a DQ7. then either your daughter would have her 1 DQ8 from u, and either a DQ7 or nothing from the dad.

at least that's my amateur understanding.

That makes total sense that he could have one of the other gluten sensitive genes. But it would mean that he doesn't have DQ2 or DQ8 right? Since she got the DQ8 from me and she doesn't have DQ2, or is it possible to have one copy of a gene and not pass it on to your children? It's really just more of a curiousity thing :P I know there are other genes but right now I'm curious about DQ2 and DQ8.

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"or is it possible to have one copy of a gene and not pass it on to your children?"

Yes, that's correct. He has two copies and the way genetics work is our children receive only one copy. In your case you have two DQ8 so your daughter had to receive a DQ8.

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right just like matisse said... your husband could still have a DQ8.. but your daughter only has one- and she had to have gotten it from u, cause you have 2.

so your husband COULD have a DQ8 OR a DQ2.. but because of your daughter only having 1... then your husband's 2nd gene either has to be a different DQ gene like 1,3,7,9, etc...

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Something I recently found out:

- 100% of celiacs have one or both of the DQ2 & DQ8 genes, but so do 40% of the general population (i.e. 40% of the population has the genes but will never develop celiac).

- In celiac disease, the DQ2 & DQ8 genes constitute only 40% of the genetic load. 12 other genes comprise the remaining 60% of the genetic load.

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Something I recently found out:

- 100% of celiacs have one or both of the DQ2 & DQ8 genes,

Only in the U.S., where it is considered by most that if you don't have either you cannot be. In other countries other genes are recognized as celiac genes.

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Only in the U.S., where it is considered by most that if you don't have either you cannot be. In other countries other genes are recognized as celiac genes.

agreed.

i personally think all the DQ genes carry a potential risk- but maybe need more triggers- just my opinion.

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