My sister was tested (endoscope and lab tests) both negative. She has no symptoms of pain as long as she adheres to the diet. My daughter has the same horrendous abdominal pains as my sister. She is not tested. She is on the diet also and has no symptoms as long as she strictly adheres to the diet. Both have been on this diet since the summer. Since this is genetic, what is the percentage of chance that I could have this too? I am symptom-free in the respect that I suffer no physical discomfort what so ever. I have recently been diagnosed with slight anemia. I am having lab tests currently to find the cause. No blood in the stool from 1 test so I'm thinking that it's a nutrient absorbing issue. Could this one problem be celiac disease especially w/o really any other problems for me?