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Meet’s Codex Definition Of Gluten Free Which Is Currently Less Than

steveindenver

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steveindenver Contributor
steveindenver
Posted

I was told a product (Minute Maid products) "Meet’s Codex definition of gluten free which is currently less than 200 parts per million gluten" - does that mean this is safe for us Celiacs or no?

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tarnalberry Community Regular
tarnalberry
Posted

It means you have to make a decision as to whether or not you will eat it.

Basically, there isn't a test that can tell you that there is 0ppm gluten, only tests that can tell you that there is less than Xppm gluten. Tests can get more accurate, but that usually means more expensive or bigger or more difficult or less reliable. So, the test that they ran tested for less than the 200ppm that is the CODEX standard. So it could have 1ppm or 199ppm, the test can't tell the difference. Your body may well be able to.

It's important to realize that these are legal statements that companies give to cover their butts, because we live in a world of litigation, and it's up to us to figure out if we can ignore it or not.

Personally, for me, it depends on the type of product. If this were a juice that didn't have a suspect ingredient, I would have it. If it were a different type of food that did have a suspect ingredient, I might not.

steveindenver Contributor
steveindenver
Posted
  • Author

It's for Limeaid, Lemonade and Margarita mixers - they all list "natural flavors" which was what made me call. UGH! Sometimes I hate being a Celiac.

nikki-uk Enthusiast
nikki-uk
Posted

Mmmm,it's a tough one.

I have to agree with Tiffany,and say it's a personal choice.

Here in the U.K there are plenty of G.F foods that contain Codex,and plenty of coeliacs eat it without an obvious reaction-but there are plenty who do react-sooo it's if you're willing to take the risk.... :blink:

tarnalberry Community Regular
tarnalberry
Posted

hmm... in something like that, I would probably go with it. my reasoning is that the 'natural flavors' is quite likely to be lime and lemon extracts, and any gluten they might be concerned about would be in distilled alcohol which would not only be distilled (and hence gluten-free) but likely from corn (because it's cheaper). (this is why knowing a little food chemistry helps in making these decisions. natural flavors in other things are more likely to come from grains.) but it really is a personal decision...

steveindenver Contributor
steveindenver
Posted
  • Author

see, that's my thoughts too, that why would they use gluten in that? But ya never know. I just found out the Bombay Saphirre gin is a no-no (for the most part):

Thank you for your inquiry. As per your request, please be advised that the alcohol used in processing the gin does derive from grain, corn, wheat, and rye. Therefore, BOMBAY SAPPHIRE and BOMBAY ORIGINAL Gins may contain trace amounts of gluten, because some of these ingredients are outsourced. The exact quantity is unknown. If you still have questions, we suggest you contact your doctor as to whether or not you should consume such beverage products before consumption.

Nancym Enthusiast
Nancym
Posted

I don't know why they'd tell you it meets the Codex standard. In the US those definitions are under the auspice of the FDA, not the EU's Codex.

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ehrin Explorer
ehrin
Posted
see, that's my thoughts too, that why would they use gluten in that? But ya never know. I just found out the Bombay Saphirre gin is a no-no (for the most part):

Thank you for your inquiry. As per your request, please be advised that the alcohol used in processing the gin does derive from grain, corn, wheat, and rye. Therefore, BOMBAY SAPPHIRE and BOMBAY ORIGINAL Gins may contain trace amounts of gluten, because some of these ingredients are outsourced. The exact quantity is unknown. If you still have questions, we suggest you contact your doctor as to whether or not you should consume such beverage products before consumption.

For the record - I drink Bombay without problems.

tarnalberry Community Regular
tarnalberry
Posted
I don't know why they'd tell you it meets the Codex standard. In the US those definitions are under the auspice of the FDA, not the EU's Codex.

Because the US doesn't have a standard, so they borrow the standard that's been around the longest - the CODEX one.

Nancym Enthusiast
Nancym
Posted
Because the US doesn't have a standard, so they borrow the standard that's been around the longest - the CODEX one.

That occured to me after I posted. :P

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