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What's The Difference?


7-cody

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Jestgar Rising Star

Tissue transglutaminase. A specific protein found in the gut.

Immunoglobin G. A generic name for a type of antibodies. They can be against almost anything (which means they recognize ) but each individual molecule is specific for it's individual thing.

Think of them like little kids in a shopping cart being pushed through a store. Every kid reaches out and grabs his/her favorite thing. Some of them grab the same thing as a different kid, but kid A always grabs Fruit Loops for example. anti-gliadin IgG always grabs gliadin.


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JennyC Enthusiast
dumb question here--what is the difference between tTG and IgG?

There's no such thing as a dumb question--especially not regarding this complicated stuff! IgG is an immunoglobulin or antibody. We have numerous types in our body such as IgA, IgM, IgE and IgG. They are meant to protect us from infection but also give rise to allergies. tTG is an enzyme. I think it is called tissue transglutaminase. I don't know the normal function off of the top of my head, but in celiac disease it alters the gluten molecule and it is one of the steps that takes place when celiac patients react to gluten.

Happygirl, thanks for posting that link. It's very interesting.

Guest Doll

Great posts and discussion on this thread! I just wanted to add that it is not uncommon to have antibodies against a specific target and not yet have clinical detectable disease. Examples of this are found in people who have antibodies to their thyroid gland, adrenal glands (Addison's Disease), or pancreas (Type 1 diabetes). Antibody screening is used to single out those who may be developing any of the above autoimmune diseases or is at high risk to develop them at a later date.

Perhaps we can assume that latent Celiac Disease (pos. antibodies, neg. biopsy) falls into the same category, assuming the negative biopsy is correct.

Another explanation I explained earlier, people with autoimmune diseases likely all share a leaky gut. Some genetics overlap, but you probably need additional genetics and seperate triggers for each autoimmune disease in addition to the shared genes and leaky gut.

So someone with autoimmune diseases or such in their family likely has a leaky gut and possibly will have some sort of response to gluten (ex. Anti-Gliadin antibodies) show up in bloodwork. But, they do not have the *additional* genetics needed for actual intestinal damage (Celiac Disease). I don't think anyone here can claim that gluten in and of itself can cause intestinal damage in those without the susceptible genes. People with a leaky gut will be having serious reactions, but not necessarily intestinal damage. People with a leaky gut and the genes for autoimmune diseases may benefit from the gluten-free diet, since it removes gluten as an immune system target. That doesn't mean gluten is the cause of these diseases, just that it is another foreign protein those with a leaky gut can react to, increasing inflammation. Inflammation is a state needed for autoimmune disease to develop, and it can be a symptom of autoimmunity as well (what I think).

Think of it this way...use another autoimmune disease, with the same type of pathology as Celiac. You are born with the genes for Type 1 diabetes. You cannot get the disease until something(s) in the environment "triggers" it. This is the understood model of autoimmunity.

Let's say the trigger is the coxsackie virus and then exposure to casein. Type 1 diabetes occurs in about 1 in 600 kids (give or take). The vast majority of kids can be exposed to the coxsackie virus and casein all day long, and they never get Type 1 diabetes. No matter what. Ever. Why? Because they were not born with the genes to develop it.

I think this was what Rachel-24 was saying, and I agree with her.

That said, those with the genes for autoimmunity in general would benefit from a gluten-free diet, even without intestinal damage. Why? Likely because they have a leaky gut and gluten may play a role in increasing "gut leakiness" and immune stimulation in those with a leaky gut. That said, those people will not get intestinal damage without the genes for actual Celiac though (from what I know).

If you seem to have a leaky gut from something else (mercury? Lyme? Bacterial overgrowth?) without any autoimmunity genes (including those for Celiac), then it would not make any sense to think that those people would get intestinal damage.

hathor Contributor

Oh, that clarifies things! (Though I disagree with their statement that 1% of the population is affected. That's all that's been diagnosed, but, as you say, it takes 11 years to get diagnosed, so the number of people affected must be substantially higher than 15!)

No, the 1% figure for celiacs is based on a study of blood donors (I believe it was) that were screened for celiac. There is no where NEAR that many people generally in this country who have actually been diagnosed. The figure I've always heard is that 97% are NOT diagnosed. One example:

"Roughly one out of every 133 Americans has celiac disease, but 97% remain undiagnosed. This means that almost three million Americans have celiac disease and only about 100,000 know they have it."

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I've heard assorted figures for those who are gluten insensitive all over the ballpark, from 10% to 30% or more. I believe that Dr. Fine's research indicates a percentage meeting his diagnostic criteria near the upper end. I can't remember where I saw that though, so I can't tell you the number offhand. I've seen other estimates, but those folks don't say where their percentage comes from.

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