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Gluten Intolerance Question

UIDancer

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UIDancer Apprentice
UIDancer
Posted

I was tested for Celiac a few months ago and after my results came back negative, my GI doc said I must be gluten intolerant since my symptoms went away once I went gluten-free. So after being gluten-free for about 3 months, I decided to test the waters to see how badly I react since I have no clue of the severity of my intolerance. Well... I went all out! I had bread, pasta, AND bread pudding. Needless to say I was ridiculously full but guess what! No symptoms. Now I know this was not all in my head, so does anyone know what's going on? Is it possible that consuming gluten day after day will cause a reaction but having it every once in a while is okay? I'm going back to see the doc in a couple weeks but was wondering if anyone had some insight.

Thanks!

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Carriefaith Enthusiast
Carriefaith
Posted

Which tests did you have done for celiac?

If all of your symptoms went away after going gluten free than I would guess that you are sensitive to gluten or wheat. You may find that you develop symtoms after being on gluten for awile. I would definatley discuss this with your doctor.

KaitiUSA Enthusiast
KaitiUSA
Posted

Which tests did you have done? Some tests are better then others. If you saw an improvement then chances are at the minimum that you have an intolerance to gluten.

LKelly8 Rookie
LKelly8
Posted

I'm a believer in gluten intolerance/gluten sensitivty/celiac all being one illness - what's now referred to by doctors as celiac is actually just the end stage of the disease, GI and GS are the early stages. JMHO. That being said. . .

Celiac is an autoimmune disorder and they're notorious for being sneaky and changable - they can jump back and forth between "active" phases and "inactive" or "silent" phases. Don't be fooled though, just as much damage can occur during the silent phase.

KaitiUSA Enthusiast
KaitiUSA
Posted

Yes, the difference between gluten intolerance and celiac though is gluten intolerance should not cause the damage that celiacs have.

However, you are correct in the fact that with celiac there can be no symptoms at all and still have damage.

UIDancer Apprentice
UIDancer
Posted
  • Author

I should know, but unfortunately I have no idea which tests were done. I'll find out when I go back. No one else in my family (that I know of) has Celiac. That being said, is it still possible for me to develop Celiac later in life if I'm Gluten Intolerant now? If it's possible, will remaining gluten-free decrease my chances for developing it?

Thanks!

Carriefaith Enthusiast
Carriefaith
Posted

If you have the gene for celiac than it would be very possible to develop celiac disease in the future if you are only sensitive to it now. I also didn't think anyone in my family had celiac, but some family members got tested (because of me) and my grandmother ended up getting postive results. I guess she never got super sick with it like I did and thus never got tested for it before.

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KaitiUSA Enthusiast
KaitiUSA
Posted
I should know, but unfortunately I have no idea which tests were done. I'll find out when I go back. No one else in my family (that I know of) has Celiac. That being said, is it still possible for me to develop Celiac later in life if I'm Gluten Intolerant now? If it's possible, will remaining gluten-free decrease my chances for developing it?

Thanks!

Maybe people from your family did have it but never found out. It is a very commonly missed disease. If you have a celiac gene then yes you can have celiac activated. If you are gluten intolerant now, it can turn into celiac later...however there are other factors that can make the celiac activate such as stress, bacterial and viral infections, surgery, childbirth, environment, etc

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